JLW
10-12-2006, 12:07 AM
Guess I will never understand the workings of a neuro doc's mind and the way they write things. Under "Reason for Consult" it says right foot tightness in the toe tips area and history of resected neuroma in right foot November 2005. Okay, what's with the toe tips area comment? I have tightness all over the place on my foot, but my MAIN complaint was pain!! Why isn't pain even mentioned? Is pain in and of itself not a reason for a test?
Under the "Nerve Conduction Study Findings" it mentioned the sensory responses were normal; the tested motor nerves were normal except the tibial motor F wave showed normal distal latency but there was an axon reflex present. Okay, if it is part of a phrase that starts with "but" then it makes me think it's a reflex that shouldn't be there.
Under "EMG Findings" it mentions which muscles were tested on right foot and even some on left foot. It lists the muscles that were normal, then says: The abnormal muscles were right AH, right intrinsic foot muscle to toe 3 and right intrinsic foot muscle to toe 4; they showed no spontaneous activity but they had 2+ large and long motor unit potential suggestive of chronic neurogenic changes. I gotta look up what a "right AH" muscle is. And what does "2+ large and long motor unit potential" mean? And "spontaneous activity" is another odd phrase I'm not sure about.
Then under "Interpretation" it says: Right plantar neuropathy, motor, axonal, chronic and inactive. Okay I know that plantar means bottom of the foot, and I believe motor has to do with how the muscles move, but axonal I am clueless on. I know what chronic means, but as far as a meaning for "inactive" all I can come up with is it must mean there is no motor movement where there should be - like it is dead or something?
I do have an appointment scheduled in two weeks to discuss the report and go over my questions, but two weeks seems like an eternity to me when I don't understand something.
Can any of you help me out with understanding it?
Under the "Nerve Conduction Study Findings" it mentioned the sensory responses were normal; the tested motor nerves were normal except the tibial motor F wave showed normal distal latency but there was an axon reflex present. Okay, if it is part of a phrase that starts with "but" then it makes me think it's a reflex that shouldn't be there.
Under "EMG Findings" it mentions which muscles were tested on right foot and even some on left foot. It lists the muscles that were normal, then says: The abnormal muscles were right AH, right intrinsic foot muscle to toe 3 and right intrinsic foot muscle to toe 4; they showed no spontaneous activity but they had 2+ large and long motor unit potential suggestive of chronic neurogenic changes. I gotta look up what a "right AH" muscle is. And what does "2+ large and long motor unit potential" mean? And "spontaneous activity" is another odd phrase I'm not sure about.
Then under "Interpretation" it says: Right plantar neuropathy, motor, axonal, chronic and inactive. Okay I know that plantar means bottom of the foot, and I believe motor has to do with how the muscles move, but axonal I am clueless on. I know what chronic means, but as far as a meaning for "inactive" all I can come up with is it must mean there is no motor movement where there should be - like it is dead or something?
I do have an appointment scheduled in two weeks to discuss the report and go over my questions, but two weeks seems like an eternity to me when I don't understand something.
Can any of you help me out with understanding it?